QUESTION |
Which is correct:
"While I would like to think the repair we (affected/effected) would be permanent,..."
Could you also tell me why the chosen word is correct. Thanks. (This is from a doctor's
dictation.) (I used effected. Was I right or wrong?)
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Pascagoula, Mississippi Sun, Oct 14, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
Almost always, the verb is "affect" and the noun is "effect," but in this case you (and the doctor) are using the verb form of "effect," to mean something like "accomplished," and it's perfectly appropriate.
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QUESTION |
This question is about the usage of "so...that." Is it true that we
can not use "so...that" in a subordinate clause or participal phrases?
For example, is it correct to say:
Since the 1930's, aircraft manufacturers have tried to build airplanes with frictionless wings,
shaped so perfectly that the air passing over them would not become turbulent.
Here, so..that is not used in the complete sentence, but in the participial phrase. Is it correct?
Or should I change to say:
Since the 1930's, aircraft manufacturers have tried to build airplanes with frictionless wings,
wings so perfectly shaped that the air passing over them would not become turbulent.
Thanks
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
El Cerrito, California Sun, Oct 14, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
In your first sentence, you've used "so that" in a participial phrase. Frequently, though, a participial phrase is simply a dependent clause with the machinery of the clause omitted. The problem with the first sentence, I think, is that the comma is really inappropriate.
Since the 1930's, aircraft manufacturers have tried to build airplanes with frictionless wings [that are] shaped so perfectly that the air passing over them would not become turbulent.
The second sentence contains what we call a resumptive modifier, which you see in the repetition of the word "wings." It's a considerable improvement over the first version of this sentence. Now it's perfectly clear what the modifying information is modifying.
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QUESTION |
My question concerns the word order in the following sentences:
- Susan went by car to work yesterday.
- Susan went to work by car yesterday.
I prefer the latter, but I do not know how to justify this.
Clearly "to go by bike" is an idiomatic expression,
but which rule applies here regarding the word order?
Thank you.
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Berlin, Germany Mon, Oct 15, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
In The Royal of Adverbs," we suggest that adverbs of manner (which would include "by car") normally precede adverbs of place ("to town") and time ("yesterday"). However, I think your ear is right in this case, and it's perfectly OK to put the adverb of place before the adverb of manner. I think it might have something to do with the nature of the verb "to go" ("went") here. It nearly demands an adverb that tells "where" to come immediately afterwards. In a sentence such as "She works tirelessly all morning at her job," the adverb of manner falls naturally before the adverbs of place and time.
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QUESTION |
When using 1950s as a noun in a sentence, should the verb be
plural or singular? Ex. In terms of aviation, the 1950s was/were considered the "Jet Age."
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Meriden, Connecticut Mon, Oct 15, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
"The 1950s" is a plural construction and a plural verb is required, as in "They were considered." If you want to regard the 1950s as a discrete measurement of time, a "lump" of time, as it were, you would have to refer to it as "the decade of the 1950s was considered. . . ."
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QUESTION |
The company I work for uses the following as a heading to a
boilerplate:
"Helping You Maintain Advantage"
It doesn't sound right to me. I'm inclined to say "helping you maintain an advantage."
Can you please tell me if what they use is incorrect and if so, why (so that I'll be able to
explain it correctly)?
THANKS!
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Los Angeles, California Tue, Oct 16, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
We often hear the phrase "taking advantage" without a determiner or article, but then we usually use a determiner with "maintaining [his/an/your/etc.] advantage." Unmodified, "maintain advantage" sounds like something from a physics course. I agree with you, but I doubt if you'll find anything in a rulebook or dictionary that says "maintaining advantage" is incorrect. You might consult the Oxford English Dictionary the next time you're in a library rich enough to own one.
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QUESTION |
Is the phrase "once a week" a prepositional phrase? I know
that once is an adverb, but the purpose and structure of the phrase indicate that it should be a
prepositional phrase.
Thanks!
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
San Jose, California Tue, Oct 16, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
Indeed, it looks like a prepositional phrase, doesn't it? I think, though, that "once" functions as an adverb, as it almost always does, as in "That happened only once." In the phrase, "a week," though, the word "a" is functioning as a preposition and "a week" is a prepositional phrase modifying the adverb "once." (The word "a" functions as a preposition (meaning "for each" or "in") in phrases such as "two dollars a dozen" and "twice a week.")
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QUESTION |
Is the expression "for free" grammatically correct or should this
be phrased simply as "free"? For example, "I this book free at the garage sale" or "I got this
book for free at the garage sale." If "for free" is grammatically incorrect, how did it come
into our vernacular?
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Bethlehem, Pennsylvania Wed, Oct 17, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
Burchfield says that "for free" was initially an American pleonasm, but it's now used fairly regularly on both sides of the Atlantic in "light-hearted contexts" (to the point that Brits are apt to contain the phrase within quotation marks).
Authority: The New Fowler's Modern English Usage edited by R.W. Burchfield. Clarendon Press: Oxford, England. 1996. Used with the permission of Oxford University Press. (under "for free")
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QUESTION |
I am quite confused about the meaning of "direct" (adv) and
"directly."
As shown in my dictionary, one of the meanings of "direct" when it is used as an adverb is: "in
a straight line, without stopping or turning aside."
e.g., The next flight doesn't go direct to Rome.
And the meaning of "directly" is: "in a direct manner."
e.g., She answered me very directly and openly.
In fact, are they the same? I want to know the differences between them because one of my
dictionaries reads that the antonym of "direct" (adv) is "directly."
Thank you very much in advance for your help.
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Hong Kong Sat, Oct 20, 2001
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
I don't know what your dictionary means when it says that "directly" is an antonym for "direct." Both words, as you point out, are adverbs of long standing. "Direct" will be used to denote "in a straight line," as in "We flew direct to Bologna," and is also used to suggest skipping over intermediaries, as in "He went direct to the president." Before an adjective, you'll also use "directly": "The lighthouse was directly opposite the island." And in most senses, you use "directly" as in "The wind blew directly in from the north" and "The recession led directly to a major depression."
Authority: The New Fowler's Modern English Usage edited by R.W. Burchfield. Clarendon Press: Oxford, England. 1996. Used with the permission of Oxford University Press.
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