The
Grammar
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# 349

QUESTION
In response to a question, you said that it is sometimes correct to use a comma with the subordinating conjunction because. Under what circumstance would one use a comma? Can you give me an example? Thank you.
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Donna, Texas Sun, Sep 19, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
It will surely be a rare event, because the conjunction because almost invariably introduces a clause that is essential to the meaning of the sentence. However, in a sentence such as the following we would use a comma:
I have a feeling that George will be leaving the company soon, because the boss's secretary told me.
In this sentence, the "because clause" is not essential to the information immediatedly preceding it (George isn't leaving because the secretary told me). It is essential to some prior information in the sentence ("I have a feeling"). This situation is probably rare enough that you can ignore the exception and say you should not set off a clause beginning with because (but, as you can see, that isn't quite true).

QUESTION
Is it okay to use the sentence ?
"Sean was in my employ from March to July."
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Kent, Washington Sun, Sep 19, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
Merriam-Webster's allows for such usage, meaning "state of being employed." The example they give is being in the "government's employ."

QUESTION
1. Are both of the following sentences correct?
  1. Either he or I am going to drive.
  2. Either I or he is going to drive.

2. Can I write 'a pants' or I always have to write 'a pair of pants'?
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Kathmandu, Nepal Sun, Sep 19, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
Both "a" and "b" are correct, but when you say "Either he or I am going to drive" people will look at you as if you're speaking another language. You might be better off avoiding the problem by saying "One of us is going to drive."

We can't use the article "a" with the word "pants"; we have to say either "a pair of pants" or use the word "pants" (usually with another modifier — "My pants are ripped."). You might hear "a pant" (in reference to a single pair of pants) in some American clothing advertisements, but that's a silly affectation.

What a pleasure to hear from Nepal, the 120th country in our list of countries heard from! (Other recent additions are Senegal and Aruba.)


QUESTION
Which sentence is preferred?
  1. You had better be a good boy.
  2. You better be a good boy.
Is the preference, if there is one, for grammatical reasons or merely stylistical reasons?
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Bangalore, India Sun, Sep 19, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
According to Burchfield, "You better be a good boy." is an "unsupported auxiliary," which is acceptable in informal contexts, but only in North America and Australia. (Apparently, it isn't used very often in England; I don't know about India.) What he calls a "modal idiom," had better is used (correctly) to mean "would be wiser to."

Authority: The New Fowler's Modern English Usage edited by R.W. Burchfield. Clarendon Press: Oxford, England. 1996. Used with the permission of Oxford University Press.


QUESTION
Hi. I'm helping my sister check some advertising copy and I am stuck on something. I think the following sentence is wrong, but I am not exactly sure why. Maybe my ears are playing tricks on me.
"As an expression of our gratitude, please accept this $10 savings certificate."
I am thinking that the phrase "as an expression of our gratitude" is modifying the wrong thing (the words "please accept") and that the sentence should instead read, "Please accept this $10 savings certificate as an expression of our gratitude."

I guess it would help if I could even pinpoint the role the phrase is playing in the sentence, but I'm stumped. I'm not sure whether the word "as" in the sentence's original form is working as a subordinating conjunction or what.

Thanks in advance for your help!

SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Cromwell, Connecticut Mon, Sep 20, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
The word as is functioning as preposition in that sentence, meaning "in the role or capacity of," and you're absolutely right: the prepositional phrase introduced by "as" is trying to modify (as all modifiers will) the thing it's next to, the adverb and verb "please accept" along with the understood subject, "you." The prepositional phrase really ought to modify the term "savings certificate" and ought to be placed closer to those words, as you suggest.

QUESTION
In a contract, can you please tell me the difference between "hereto" and "hereof".
e.g.: "you will find in section XX hereto(of)"
thank you
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Montreal, Quebec, Canada Tue, Sep 21, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
Use of such arcane jargon is one reason why people love jokes about lawyers (those who utilize such language appertaining thereunto). "Hereto" means "to this" and "hereof" means "of this." In that sentence, "hereof" would mean "section XX of this document."

QUESTION
Should the word different or differently be used in the following sentence:
  • Unless you hear different in the next couple of days, the November meeting will be rescheduled around the current activities.
  • Unless you hear differently in the next couple of days, the November meeting will be rescheduled around the current activities.
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
St. Louis, Missouri Tue, Sep 21, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
You could avoid the problem and use "otherwise" instead: "Unless you hear otherwise." To hear something differently means that you hear it in a different way, which is not what you mean. This is why we use adjectives, not adverbs, with linking verbs (which include verbs of feeling, as in "I feel bad."). If you insist on a form of "different," use the adjective form ("different") instead of the adverb form ("differently").

QUESTION
I am confused about "as well as" - what its function in a sentence is, and how one sets it off with punctuation. Looking in the dictionary only confused me more. Thanks!
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Somerville, Massachusetts Tue, Sep 21, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
When this construction is used as a preposition, it will probably be set off by commas: "The dean, as well as the entire English faculty, protested the cutbacks." It can also be used as a conjunction, however: "He can run a meeting as well as Farbman [can]." and here we usually don't use a comma to set off the clause introduced by "as well as." Acting as a conjunction, "as well as" can also join two simple words or phrases (and means "additionally" or "in addition to being"): "She is witty as well as funny." I hope that helps.

QUESTION
Could you please give me your point of view on a subject of dissension between my colleague and myself ? Two sentences have thus been built:
  1. At the end of the last century, Great Britain had ruled North America for twenty years.
  2. At the end of the last century, Great Britain had been ruling North America for twenty years.
The two sentences are complete , independent and not linked to another event in the past. According to one of us, the ruling of Great Britain was finished in case 1 and still going on in case 2. And that's the difference between those two sentences. The other one thinks that there isn't such a difference of meaning in those two sentences. There's no need to use the past perfect or past perfect continuous in the above sentences as there's no reference to another action in the past. The action is finished and over in the two cases and a past tense would be more appropriate.

When the past perfect is used, one assumes a reason for its use in nonconditional, non-reported speech; that reason is the need to show that an action with past perfect tense happened before an action with past tense. The two sentences above have nothing which would lead one to infer or conclude that one rule was longer than the other or even that both happened before another action. So the use of past perfect simple and continuous is superfluous and doesn't change the meaning.

Two other suggestions are made: Great Britain had ruled North America for more than a century when the Independence War broke. Great Britain had been ruling North America for more than a century when the independence War broke. Thanks a lot for your answer.

SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Somewhere, France Tue, Sep 21, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
My colleague Evelyn Farbman took over on this one. (The question gave me a roaring headache.)

  1. At the end of the last century, Great Britain had ruled North America for twenty years.
  2. At the end of the last century, Great Britain had been ruling North America for twenty years.
  1. The phrase "for twenty years" indicates a stretch of past time that ended with "the end of the last century," so there are, in fact two past times being contrasted: the fixed past time (end of the century) and the earlier 20 years. Therefore past perfect is necessary.
  2. The choice between simple past perfect and past perfect progressive is more about drama than about completion. Both choices are possible here. Simple past perfect is more factual: Britain had ruled for 20 years, and that's just the way it was. Past perfect progressive is more intense and literally progressive: Britain had been ruling for 20 years and it felt like a long time, a lot had happened, the whole period had a sense of action or progression.
  3. If you want to imply that Britain's rule was about to end and fall away into history, then the simple past perfect sets the scene into that more objective framework. But if you want to imply that Britain's rule was still in full power and likely to continue for a few more important years, then the past perfect progressive sets the scene into that more impassioned or action-filled framework. But to assert clearly that Britain's rule was completed by the end of the century, you'd have to add another sentence or phrase—the simple past perfect by itself wouldn't do it.
  4. The clause in the alternate version "When the independence war broke" is the same as "at the end of the last century": it simply establishes a fixed past moment before which the other action took place. So the same principles apply.

QUESTION
What is the plural for cheetah? Can cheetah be singular and plural or is 'cheetahs' the standard plural?
SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE
Waltham, Massachusetts Tue, Sep 21, 1999
GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE
I didn't know this, but the dictionary says that "cheetah" is similar to "moose" — and can serve as both singular and plural. (It's kind of hard to put moose and cheetah in the same thought or sentence, isn't it?) But they also list "cheetahs" as the plural form, and I think that's how most people pluralize that animal. (I could be wrong; I don't hang out much with big-cat people.)

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