QUESTION |
My sleeve must have come in contact with some grease.
- Come or came? My MS Word grammar checker seems to like either.
- What is this verb tense called.
- How could I have found the answer by myself?
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
State College, Pennsylvania Tue, Jun 15, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
I think that's a present perfect, "have come," with an auxiliary "must" expressing obligation. I'm surprised that your grammar checker tolerates "came," but that shows the limitation of such software, I guess. The present perfect consists of a form of "have" plus the past participle form of the verb: "I have come, it has come, etc." Most grammar textbooks and writing manuals will have a section on verb tenses or verb auxiliaries that can help with such decisions.
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QUESTION |
Is the word "enamored" best followed by the word
"with," "by," or "of?" Since the word means "charmed or
captivated," I like using "enamored by..." but Webster's
suggests that is should be "enamored of..."
What is the difference?
Thanks so much for this great service!
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Falls Church, Virginia Tue, Jun 15, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
I don't know why this is so, but it is: "enamored (enamoured, in UK) is followed by 'of,' sometimes with 'with.'" It must have something to do with its romantic ancestry. It's like "fond," I suppose: we say he is "fond of the sound of his own voice," not "font with" or "fond by."
Authority: The New Fowler's Modern English Usage edited by R.W. Burchfield. Clarendon Press: Oxford, England. 1996.
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QUESTION |
I have a question about the origin of ligatures. For example the and æ letters written so that they touch. I am reading Dreiser's Sister Carrie and
he writes "dramatis personæ" with the ae touchinga ligature. Are they a French pronunciation? If so, what is the correct pronunciation of the æ and ligatures?
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Tampa Bay, Florida Tue, Jun 15, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
A ligature is not necessarily a clue to a word's ancestry. The word uvre, of course, is French, but you'll see Greek words (like "Ægean"actually I'm just assuming that's Greek) with ligatures as well, and sometimes they're used as a hallmark of refined typography. The dictionary is your only reliable guide to pronunciation.
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QUESTION |
My friends and I are in disagreement over the last word in this sentence: John and Carol will lead going back, otherwise it will be Jack and (I/me).
I said that "otherwise" is a transitional tag that creates a weak clause requiring the object pronoun "me". They say there is no weak clause and that, because of the verb "be", the subject pronoun "I" is correct.
If they are correct, why is it that "otherwise" seems to give the sentence a prepositional phrase flavor?
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
St. Paul, Minnesota Wed, Jun 16, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
I have to admit that I'm baffled by the expression "weak clause." Otherwise is definitely a transitional tag, requiring a semicolon in front of it (not the comma), but that doesn't affect the case of the pronoun there. You do want the subject form, "I." Frankly, though, the sentence would be much improved if you kept the clauses parallel and wrote the second clause this way: "otherwise, Jack and I will lead." If you wish, putting aside the "prepositional flavor" argument, you could argue that there is no reason why we can't follow a linking verb with the object form. Other languages do it all the time: c'est moi. And I am sure that even in rather formal speech, we would use "me" in a statement such as "There is only one person who can decide this, and that is me."
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QUESTION |
Which is correct 'a classical cricket stroke' or 'a classic cricket stroke' and what are the rules. Also which is the adjective?
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Tamworth, New South Wales, Australia Wed, Jun 16, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
"Classical" is always an adjective. Usually, it hearkens back to an earlier time, a period of simplicity and elegance. (Never get involved in a discussion on what defines or limits the period of classical music.) The word "classic," which is probably what you want here, can be both an adjective and a noun. A classic stroke in cricket, I suppose, could remind you of a period of superior cricket players, but it probably means only that it's authoritatively the best, something others should model their stroke after. If it achieves that status, it has become "a classic."
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QUESTION |
Which is correct: "details of" or "details on"? (Please explain why.)
Example:
"See Chapter 7 for more details [of, on] diagramming sentences."
Thanks!
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Everett, Washington Thu, Jun 17, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
We would look in chapter seven for details on diagramming sentences, but then we would say that the details of diagramming sentences are exciting. Is it possible to say that the details already belong to the diagramming in the second phrase? We would say "What are the details of his plan?" if we wanted a full explication of what was going on within someone's plan and then someone would start to list the details. We would say "What are the details on his plan?" if we wanted to hear, say, where we could find the plan, when that plan might go into effect, etc. It's not an easy distinction to explain, and I'll leave an e-mail icon here in case someone else can explain it better.
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QUESTION |
Is it correct to use a plural version of the word 'incidence'? For example, to write "the incidences were 2/10, 5/10, 8/10" in reporting the results of experimental tests. My correction for this (it seems wrong to me) is to write "the incidence rates were", but some of the scientists here object that by adding "rates" I have changed the meaning of the sentence. Your guidance would be much appreciated.
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Oakland, California Thu, Jun 17, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
You can have the plural of an incident, meaning an event: incidents. However, the word "incidence" means rate, so "incidence rate" is a bit of a redundancy. You'd be better off using the word rateor ratesby itself. Or change your sentence to read something like "the incidence changes from 2/10 to 5/10 to 8/10." Your scientist friends make a good point. I don't know if "incidence rates" changes your meaning exactly, but it certainly clouds the meaning.
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QUESTION |
Are there any rules about use of "where", "if" and "when" to qualify something? Are they interchangeable? I'm thinking of statements that need one of these words before "appropriate" to indicate that something should be done "in appropriate cases".
For example: Employees should, where/if/when appropriate, advise the customer that...
Your advice would be greatly appreciated!
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SOURCE OF QUESTION & DATE OF RESPONSE |
Gibson, BC, Canada Fri, Jun 18, 1999
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GRAMMAR'S RESPONSE |
It's doubtful that "where" would ever be necessary or appropriate. "When" is probably the subordinator that you want most of the time. "If" might suggest that there are circumstances in which it simply is not appropriate for the employee to advise customers (which is possible, but that's not what you mean here).
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